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Why do churches of Christ deny tongue-speaking when it is promised to believers in Acts 2:38?
Todd Clippard
As one studies the Bible, he must understand that not every promise found is applicable for all men for all time. The context and the entirety of scripture concerning a particular topic must be considered to gain a proper understanding of what is actually being taught.
For example, in Acts 1, when Jesus told the apostles to go to Jerusalem and there wait for the Holy Spirit, that promise applied only to the twelve. It was not for you or me.
The same situation applies to the early church. The promise of the miraculous gifts of the Holy Spirit were given to them, but not to us today. In fact, in 1 Corinthians 12:28-13:13 the apostle Paul told the Corinthians the days of miracles would cease. He described miracles as those things that are done "in part." The doing away with "that which is done in part" (i.e., cessation of miracles) would come when "that which is perfect is come."
"That which is perfect" has reference to the completed revelation of God -- the Bible, and in particular, the New Testament. James described the New Testament as "the perfect law of liberty" (James 1:25). Paul said the Scripture makes the man of God complete, thoroughly furnishing him unto every good work (2 Timothy 3:16-17).
Now, if the Scriptures make man complete, and furnish him completely to every good work, what would be the purpose or need for the miraculous gifts? The apostle Paul went so far as to describe the need for the miraculous gifts as being childish, and not worthy of those who are spiritually mature (1 Corinthians 13:10-13). Paul told that same church we are to "walk by faith" (which comes from hearing God's word - Romans 10:17) and "not by sight."
Therefore, any promise of the miraculous gifts of the Spirit in Acts 2:38 is limited to the period of time prior to the completed revelation of God.
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