Author: Brandi With An I
•8:30 AM
Is it necessary for a Christian to be a part of a local church? Can't one practiced his religion at home?

Topic(s): Christian Life, Church
Todd Clippard

A look at the history of the early church assembling together in the New Testament should help us answer this question.

Of the very first church, it is said "they continued steadfastly in the apostles' doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers. And fear came upon every soul: and many wonders and signs were done by the apostles. And all that believed were together Acts 2:42-44

Acts 20:7 -- "And upon the first day of the week, when the disciples came together to break bread "

1 Corinthians 11:18-20 -- the church came together in one place.

Hebrews 2:12 -- "I will declare thy name unto my brethren, in the midst of the church will I sing praise unto thee "

Hebrews 10:25 -- Forsaking not the assembling of yourselves together.

God's church is a body made up of many members. Each local congregation is designed by God to function together. Assembling alone at one's house defeats the purposes of assembling together.

I think these verses show the need to assemble together with those of like precious faith. If one were physically unable to be present at the assemblies, this would be a different matter altogether. But to intentionally absent oneself from the assembly is not what God intends for His children.

Author: Brandi With An I
•8:30 AM
Did the early church have Sunday School? If not, where is the authority for such an arrangement?

Topic(s): Bible Authority, Church
Todd Clippard

There is no record of the early church conducting Bible classes or Sunday School as we know it. However, this is not to say there is no authority for such a teaching arrangement.

The authority for Sunday School is found in the Great Commission in Matthew 28:19-20. The disciples were commanded to go and teach, baptize, and teach some more. Sunday School is a means of teaching both non-Christians and Christians. It is not the only way, but it is one way. It violates no other passage or principle of scripture, and therefore is a Divinely-approved means of teaching.

There is a precedent in principle concerning Bible classes. The construction of synagogues throughout the Jewish land and even the lands of dispersion and exile shows God's people were concerned with providing instruction in God's word. The first place of Jewish worship was the tabernacle, followed by the temple. Synagogues were constructed not as places of worship but as places for public teaching (Matthew 4:23, Mark 1:21, 6:2; John 6:59, 18:20; Acts 9:2; 13:5; 13:14; 17:1; 18:4).

Author: Brandi With An I
•8:30 AM
How should the church be organized?

Topic(s): Bible Authority, Church
Todd Clippard

Perhaps the easiest way to compare most of today's religious bodies against the church revealed in Scripture is by the way they are organized, both at the world-wide and local level. First, the church revealed in the New Testament has no earthly headquarters or ruling body<. Jesus is the only head of the church (Col 1:18), and He is now reigning in heaven at the Father's right hand (Acts 2:29-36; 1 Cor 15:23-28). Therefore, any religious body that possesses an earthly headquarters or organization that directs its affairs and doctrines cannot be the church revealed in the New Testament. This eliminates practically every major religious organization in the world from being the church established by Jesus and revealed in the Bible.

Second, at the local level, the church revealed in the New Testament is autonomous (self-governed) and overseen by a plurality of elders, also known as bishops, shepherds, pastors, overseers, or presbyters (Acts 20:17, 28; 1 Tim 3:1; Titus 1:5, 7; Eph 4:11; 1 Pet 5:1-2).

The Lord intended for every congregation to have an eldership (Acts 14:23; Titus 1:5). Not once in the Scriptures will one find a congregation ruled by one man identified as the "pastor." The word "pastor" is found only once in the KJV (Eph 4:11), and is translated from the Greek poimane. This same Greek word is elsewhere translated "feed" (Acts 20:28; 1 Pet 5:2). In these contexts, it describes a function of theeldership. In Acts 20:17, Paul called for the elders of the Ephesian church to meet him in Miletus. In verse 28, he referred to them as "overseers" and charged them to "feed the flock." "Feed" is translated from the same Greek word translated "pastors" in Ephesians 4:11 (cf 1 Pet 5:2).

One would also do well to note the qualifications given before one may serve as an elder (pastor, cf 1 Tim 3; Titus 1). One of these is to be "the husband of one wife" (1 Tim 3:2). This eliminates women from serving as elders (pastors). According to 1 Timothy 3:4, an elder (pastor) must also have children. Yet we see many religious groups with unmarried, childless (and sometimes female) "pastors." (Of note are the Mormons with their multitude of unmarried, childless "elders.") From our above observation of the Scriptures, we can know that any religious body having one man (or woman) serving as "the pastor" cannot be the church established by Jesus and revealed in the New Testament.

One can be saved only in the body of Christ (Eph 5:23), which is the church(Acts 2:47). Our prayer and purpose is to help others be a part of this essential blood-bought body.

Author: Brandi With An I
•8:15 AM
What is the difference between the Church of God and the Church of Christ?
Topic(s): Church, Denominationalism
Todd Clippard

The church Jesus came to establish (Matthew 16:18), for which He died (Acts 20:28), and to which belong all the saved (Acts 2:47), is identified in the New Testament as the church of God (1 Corinthians 1:2) and the church of Christ (Romans 16:16). The terms are used to identify the rightful owner or head of the church, and not in any way as a denominational designation for two differing religious bodies.

However, the differences between modern-day churches of Christ and the Church of God are many. The question is difficult to answer as there are sometimes substantial differences between individual churches of Christ, just like there are substantial differences among groups within the Church of God. I am not familiar with all the differing branches of churches of God, but will attempt to answer this question according to what I do know (or think <I know!) about the Church of God in relation to mainstream churches of Christ. If what I write is not consistent with your belief or practice, please understand that I am not trying to misrepresent anyone, but am simply working from personal experience or from information available on the Internet.

1. GENERAL ORGANIZATION: The Church of God is a denomination, with most having some type of earthly headquarters and a ruling body. For example, one branch of the Church of God has headquarters in Cleveland, TN, while another has headquarters in Anderson IN. I'm sure there are probably others.

Churches of Christ are autonomous, that is, we have no earthly headquarters and all congregations function completely independent of one another. This is the pattern given for the church in the New Testament. There were no formal organizations to govern or unite the various congregations. They were simply united insofar as each congregation was in adherence to the teaching of the New Testament. The Bible knows nothing of denominational organization, speaking only of the church in the local or universal sense.

2. CONGREGATIONAL ORGANIZATION: Congregations of the Church of God are led by the local preacher, sometimes called the pastor. This individual possesses great authority in direction and decision-making in the local congregation.

Churches of Christ are led by elders, men who meet the qualifications as set forth in 1 Timothy 3 and Titus 1. The word translated pastor in the New Testament applies to the work of these men, and not to the work of a preacher. The word is the Greek poimaine (Strong's # 4165), and is translated "pastors" in Ephesians 4:11 and numerous other places translated "shepherd(s)". The verb form is translated "feed" in Acts 20:28 and 1 Peter 5:2. Additionally, elders (also known as bishops or pastors) are always found in a plurality in the local church (Acts 10:17-18; Philippians 1:1), never as one man ruling in a local congregation.

3. WORSHIP Churches of God utilize instrumental music in their worship, and also utilize women in leading roles in the work and worship of the church.

Churches of Christ do not use instrumental music in worship, believing such is unauthorized by the New Testament. All references to music in the church have to do with singing. There is no command to the church to use instrumental music, neither is there any example of the church using instrumental music in the New Testament. You can see a more in-depth discussion of this topic on our website at www.housetohouse.com.

Churches of Christ do not allow women to take leading roles in the worship of the church, being mindful of the prohibitions against such in 1 Timothy 2:8-15, and in 1 Corinthians 14:34-35.

4. MIRACLES Churches of God generally believe in the possibility of miraculous healing and tongue speaking.

Churches of Christ believe the age of miracles ended at the close of the first century. 1 Corinthians 13:8-10 teaches the cessation of the miraculous when that which is perfect is come. That which is perfect is the completed revelation of God, the perfect law of liberty (James 1:25) which supplies us unto every good work (2 Timothy 3:16-17) in things pertaining unto life and godliness (2 Peter 1:3).

5. SALVATION Churches of God (according to the website of the group based in Cleveland TN) believe in salvation by faith only (at least as I understood the website). Salvation is followed by baptism in the Holy Spirit and tongue-speaking as evidence of Divine approval.

Churches of Christ believe salvation comes through faith in the gospel (Mark 16:15-16); repenting of sins (Luke 13:3,5); confessing faith in Christ (Acts 8:37; Romans 10:9-10); and being baptized for the forgiveness of sins (Acts 2:38; Acts 22:16).

6. END OF TIMES Churches of God believe in the return and literal reign of Christ on the earth.

Churches of Christ believe the kingdom is the church (Matthew 16:16-18), and will be delivered up to God when Jesus comes again (1 Corinthinas 15:23-24). A thorough refutation of premillennial theory can be read at www.housetohouse.com. Go to the webpage and select the topic "church" from the pull-down menu on the left side. The last question in the list is "What is Premillennialism?"

According to what I have read (again from the Cleveland TN website), there are additional differences between the two religious bodies. These are only a few that could be addressed in brief fashion.

Author: Brandi With An I
•8:30 AM
What about ordaining ministers? How does one know if he's been called into the ministry?
Topic(s): Bible Study, Christian Life, Church
Todd Clippard

This is a difficult question to answer due to all the religious confusion surrounding the terms ordain and called.

The word "ordain" is never used in the New Testament in reference to preachers or ministers of any type. In Titus 1:5 it is applied to the selection of elders according to the qualifications given in that chapter. It is used in 2 Peter 1:10 in reference to all Christians being diligent in making their calling and election sure, which brings me to the second point.

The word call or calling is not used in any sense of God appointing someone to a particular work. All men are called to God by the preaching of the gospel of Jesus Christ (2 Thessalonians 2:13-14). Men answer that call by obeying the commands of the gospel (Acts 2:36-41). One's calling may be used to refer to various things:

1) his lot in life when he becomes a Christian -- 1 Corinthians 7:27-24

2) the exalted lifestyle demanded of a Christian - Ephesians 4:1-3;
Philippians 3:13-14; 2 Timothy 1:9; 1 Corinthians 1:26

All Christians are commanded by God to be teachers of the gospel (Matthew 28:19-20). The early church went everywhere preaching the word (Acts 8:4). We would do well to abandon all denominational terminology and call Bible things by Bible names, and do Bible things in Bible ways.

Author: Brandi With An I
•2:02 PM

Should a woman be a pastor?
Topics à Church, Bible Study, Women, Worship
Todd Clippard

There are three issues that need to be addressed in your question.
First, we need to define what the Bible calls a pastor. Once this is done, it will answer the first part of your question, "Can a female be a pastor?". Then we will address the final part of your question, which really pertains to the subject of female preachers. This will be a fairly lengthy discussion, but one that is certainly necessary to a proper understanding of the Scriptures in this matter.
I am a preacher in Marion County, Alabama. Hardly a week goes by that I do not receive at least one call asking, "Are you the pastor?" I generally respond, "No, I am the preacher." This sometimes confuses the caller, but because they usually have some business to discuss, they ignore my reply and go on.

You may be wondering, "If you are the preacher, then why aren't you the pastor?" The answer is simple; the Bible never refers to a preacher as being synonymous with being a pastor. I know this confuses many because the religious world has erroneously conceived the idea that the preacher is "in charge" of the church. What does the Bible say about pastors? Who may be rightfully called a pastor? These are the questions that must be answered first, and then the answer to your question will be evident.

The word "pastor" is found only once in the King James Bible (Eph 4:11). It is translated from the Greek wordpoimane. However, a verb form of the same Greek word is elsewhere translated "feed" (Acts 20:28; 1 Peter 5:2). In these contexts, it describes a function of the eldership. This concept is also foreign to most of the religious world, but we shall shed some light on it later in this article.

In Acts 20:17, Paul called the elders of the Ephesian church to meet him in Miletus. In that meeting he gave the following charge in verse 28, "Take heed to yourselves, and to all the flock, over which the Holy Spirit hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God which He hath purchased with His own blood." "Feed" is the verb form of the same Greek word translated "pastors" in Ephesians 4:11.

In 1 Peter 5:1, Peter gives an exhortation to the elders. In this exhortation is the command to "feed the flock of God which is among you" (1 Peter 5:2). "Feed" is the same as that appearing in Acts 20:28. Thus, the charge to feed or pastor the flock (local church) is given to the elders, and not to the preacher. Now we must answer the question, "what is an elder or pastor?"

The word "elder" is translated from the Greek word presbuteros. Of this word, Vine's dictionary says these "were appointed to have the spiritual care of, and to exercise oversight over, the churches. To these, the term "bishops," or "overseers," is also applied (Acts 20:17, 28; Titus 1:5-7)." Paul writes of a bishop and elder as being synonymous in Titus 1:5-7. For a man to serve as an elder (or bishop), he must meet the qualifications given in the scriptures, specifically 1 Timothy 3:1-7 and Titus 1:5-9. Notice I said "a man." One of the qualifications for elders, or pastors, is that he must be the "husband of one wife" (1 Tim 3:2; Titus 1:6). This excludes women from serving in this capacity.

Also, one never reads in the Bible of one man "pastoring" a church. Each congregation was always overseen by a plurality of elders (Acts 14:23, Acts 20:17; Philippians 1:1; Titus 1:5; Hebrews 13:7, 17; 1 Peter 5:1).

In reference to elders, Paul told Titus he left him in Crete to "set in order the things that are lacking, and appoint elders in every city, as I had appointed thee" (Titus 1:5)According to scripture, a congregation without elders is lacking.
Finally, women should not serve as preachers or church leaders. The Bible reserves the role of leadership in the church (and in the home) to men. A key text in this discussion in 1 Timothy 2:8-15. The apostle Paul wrote in 1 Timothy 2:8: "I desire therefore that the men pray everywhere, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and doubting" (NKJV).
This is the first of several verses delineating the varying roles of men and women in the local body. This particular discussion ends at the conclusion of 1 Timothy 3. (The discussion in chapter 3 also includes the qualifications given for bishops/elders and also for deacons. These qualifications restrict these God-given roles to men.)

The word "men" in verse 8 is gender specific, coming from the Greek aner or andras (Strong's #435). Thayer's Lexicon identifies the word as being "with a reference to sex, and so to distinguish a man from a woman" (p 45). It also has bearing on the maturity of the male, and is used in Matthew 15:38 to distinguish a man from a woman (gunaikos -Strong's 1135) or a child (paidion - Strong's 3813).

In verse 9, Paul begins with, "in like manner also," a reference back to the holy hands i.e., pure lives and motives, of verse 8, "that the women adorn themselves in modest apparel which is proper for women professing godliness, with good works." So Paul makes a clear distinction between men and women.

Now to verses 11-12 -- "Let a woman learn in silence with all submission. And I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man, but to be in silence." The phrase "usurp authority" in the KJV implies something different than the text actually teaches. The silence in 1 Timothy 2:11-12 is to be carried out "with all subjection." Subjection comes from a Greek compound meaning "under appointment" (Strong's 5293). It is by the appointment of God that women are to learn in silence in the assembly, neither are they at liberty to exercise authority over men in the assembly.
What follows is a specific and in-depth discussion of the silence demanded of women in the public assemblies of the church. I think you will be interested to study this.

To the Corinthians, Paul wrote, "Let your women keep silent in the churches, for they are not permitted to speak; but they are to be submissive, as the law also says" (1 Cor 14:34). Though this is a different word for silence than is found in 1 Timothy 2:11, they are nonetheless the same though their relationship to Divine appointment. In 1 Corinthians, a woman's silence is said to be with submissiveness in connection with the Divine instruction of the Law, but which law?

There is no specific Mosaic injunction for women to keep silence. In 1 Timothy 2:11, her silence is connection with the Divine order of creation and the fall of man (vv 13-14). Thus, one should understand the silence commanded in the law is a reference back to Genesis 2-3, and 3:16 in particular.

A quick look at silence in 1 Corinthians 14:28, 30, and 34. The demand for silence in 1 Corinthians 14:34 is not absolute. It must be understood contextually. The Greek word translated silence in verse 34 appears three times in the chapter (vv 28, 30, and 34), and nowhere indicates absolute silence. Rather, the word must be understood in its immediate context.

In verse 28, one who is speaking in a different language is to keep silence if there is no interpreter. The silence regulates his public speaking in a tongue, but not from speaking in a tongue understood by all present. In verse 30, if one prophet is speaking and another sitting nearby receives a word of prophecy, the first is to keep silence (hold his peace) while the second speaks. And in verse 34, the woman is to keep silence in such a way so as not to go beyond her authority. This is consistent with Paul's inspired restriction placed upon women exercising authority over men in 1 Timothy 2:8-15 (cf vv 11-12).

In answer to your question, there is no authority for a woman to be called a pastor because only men can serve in that capacity, and because only men are authorized to teach and preach in the public assembly.

Author: Brandi With An I
•2:06 PM
Is baptism necessary for salvation?

Todd Clippard
Topic(s): Baptism, Church, Evangelism, Salvation

This is not simply a claim of members of churches of Christ, but rather a clear statement from the Bible. Everyone can agree that salvation requires forgiveness of sins, or the washing away of sins. In light of this, please consider the following scriptures and comments (any emphasis is mine):
"Go ye into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature. He that believeth and is baptized< shall be saved, but he that believeth not shall be damned." (Statement of Jesus in Mark 16:15-16). In this verse, Jesus specifically joins faith in the gospel message and baptism to salvation. The two verbs are joined by the conjunction "and" which places equal value on each action as necessary to receive salvation.

"Repent, and every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost." (Peter, preaching the first gospel sermon in Acts 2:38). In this verse, repentance and baptism are joined to the reception of remission of sins and the reception of the Holy Spirit.

Some argue the phrase "for the remission of sins" means "because of the remission of sins", and is akin to saying one is sent to jail for (because of) murder, not in order to commit murder. This line of argumentation denies the thrust of the word translated "for" in the verse. It is the Greek word eis. This word occurs over 1700 times in the New Testament, and always looks forward in its view, never backward (not even in Matthew 12:41). 

Additionally, this argument overlooks the statement regarding Barabbas in Luke 23:19 which says Barabbas was imprisoned for sedition and for murder. The word for in this text is not eis, but dia. In Matthew 27:18 and Mark 15:10, the Bible says the Jews delivered Jesus to Pilate for (because of - jtc) envy. Dia is also the causal preposition found in these two verses.

In instituting the Lord's Supper in Matthew 26:28, Jesus, spoke of the fruit of the vine as "my blood of the New Testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins." The Greek construction of the phrase, "for the remission of sin" in this passage is the same as that in Acts 2:38. Question: Did Jesus shed His blood in order to bring about the remission of sins, or did He shed His blood because our sins were already forgiven?

The same phrase also appears in Mark 1:4, where Mark writes of John the Baptizer who "did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins." Applying the "because of" argument in this text would place the remission of sins prior to repentance. How could such be possible?

Additionally, how can one deny baptism when Saul of Tarsus was told in Acts 22:16 to "Arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord"? This verse not only shows the washing away of sins takes place in baptism, but also explains how one "calls on the name of the Lord" in order to be saved (cf Acts 2:21; Rom 10:13).

Finally, Peter's statement in 1 Peter 3:21 should put this argument to rest once and for all. The KJV reads, "The like figure whereunto even baptism doth now also save us." The NASB reads, "Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you -not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience - through the resurrection of Jesus Christ."

To deny the essentiality of baptism for salvation is to deny the clear statements of Jesus and the inspired writers.
Author: Brandi With An I
•2:47 PM
Is it possible to identify the church found in the New Testament?

Topic(s): Bible Authority, Church
Todd Clippard

With so many forms of "Christianity" today, one may ask, "How can I know I've found the church of the New Testament?" With recent estimates showing over 2000 individual religious groups all claiming to be a form of Christianity, this is a valid question, and we can see why one would be confused. However, we can say with absolute certainty that it is possible to find the church revealed in the New Testament. As an illustration to show our certainty, consider the following:

On August 15, 2007, I will have been married to my beautiful wife for 20 years. Let's suppose I decide to take her on a cruise to celebrate our anniversary. Shortly after boarding a ship filled with more than 2000 passengers, we become separated. My wife is a petite brunette. Suppose every other woman on the ship is a petite brunette; am I to despair that I should never find her among so many others? Why, such thinking is ridiculous! Even though there may be many on board who are similar, we all understand that I can easily find her because she is unique among all the others. She has specific characteristics that will allow me to easily distinguish between her and all the others.

The same can be said for the Lord's church. In Matthew 16:18, Jesus promised "I will build My church."
Note the singularity of the church. Jesus did not promise to build His "churches," but rather His "church" (singular).

In Ephesians 5:22-32, Paul teaches us how a husband is to love his wife and how a wife is to love her husband. All through this text, Paul parallels the husband and wife relationship with that of Jesus and His church. As a husband is to have only one wife, and a wife only one husband, Jesus only has one church. In fact, throughout this particular text, there are twelve references to the church, all of which are singular< in nature:

In verse 23 we find "the church" and "the body;"
In verse 24 we find "the church;"
In verse 25 we find "the church" and "it" (a singular pronoun in reference to the church).
In verse 26 we again see "it" referring to the church;
In verse 27 we find "the church" and "it" (twice);
In verse 29 we find "the church;"
In verse 30 we find "His body"In verse 32 we find "the church."

If it is possible for me to identify my wife among thousands of other women, though they share some of her characteristics, then it is equally possible for me to find the church Jesus built though there be thousands sharing some of its characteristics.

[SOURCE]
Author: Brandi With An I
•8:00 AM
Why does the church of Christ teach the Law of Moses is no longer binding?
Todd Clippard
Topic(s): Bible Study, Church

COMMENTS ON MATTHEW 5:17-18

Jesus said He did not come to destroy< the law, but to fulfill it. He said in verse 18 that not one thing would pass from the law "until all be fulfilled." Jesus' perfect life, death, and resurrection was the final fulfillment of the old law (cf John 5:39).

Also, the old law contained language of its own demise in Deuteronomy 18:18-20, where Moses told the people a new prophet would come and He would speak new words from God. The priests and Levites thought John the Baptist was "that prophet" according to John 1:21. However, Peter identified that prophet as Jesus in Acts 3:20-26.

The prophets also contained language pointing to the end of the old law - particularly Jeremiah 31:33 and like passages.

COMMENTS ON LUKE 16:17

Because the old law was given by God, it was impossible for the old law to fail. However, in light of what we have just discussed in Matthew 5:17-18, this strengthens the argument that the old law was not given as a final will or law of God. Since the old law contains language of its own decease, and since that law cannot fail, then of necessity the old law must come to an end when all was fulfilled
Look at Luke 16:16. Jesus said, "the law and the prophets were until John: since that time the kingdom of God is preached, and every man presses into it." Jesus here clearly states the end of the old law was begun when John the Baptist began his public ministry, preaching repentance in view of the imminent coming of the kingdom (Matt 3:2). Jesus preached this same message when He began His public ministry (Matt 4:17).

COMMENTS ON ROMANS 3:31

Romans 3:31 is where Paul says he justified the law. I think this is directly related to the previous discussion. Paul was in no way trying to denigrate or destroy the old law, but was rather trying to get the Roman Christians (who were formerly Jews) to see the inclusion of the Gentiles as being a fulfillment of the old law (Isa 62:1-2). By preaching the justification of all men through faith in Jesus Christ, Paul was affirming the teaching of the old law, which was a shadow of the law of Christ (Col 2:17) and a tutor to bring us to the faith of Jesus Christ (Gal 3:22-29).

Look back at Romans 3:28. Paul writes, "We conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law." 


[SOURCE]
Author: Brandi With An I
•8:00 AM
What does 1 Timothy 2:11-15 teach about the role of women in the church?
Topic(s): Bible Authority, Church
Todd Clippard
The text under consideration actually begins back in verse 8: "I desire therefore that the men pray everywhere, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and doubting" NKJV. This is the first of several verses delineating the varying roles of men and women in the local body. This particular discussion ends at the conclusion of chapter 3.

The word "men" in this verse is gender specific, coming from the Greek aner or andras (Strong's #435). Thayer's Lexicon identifies the word as being "with a reference to sex, and so to distinguish a man from a woman" (p 45). It also has bearing on the maturity of the male, and is used in Matthew 15:38 to distinguish a man from a woman (gunaikos - Strong's 1135) or a child (paidion - Strong's 3813).

In verse 9, Paul begins with, "in like manner also," a reference back to the holy hands i.e., pure lives and motives, of verse 8, "that the women adorn themselves in modest apparel which is proper for women professing godliness, with good works." So Paul makes a clear distinction between men and women.

Now to verses 11-12 -- "Let a woman learn in silence with all submission. And I do not permit a woman to teach or to have authority over a man, but to be in silence." The phrase "usurp authority" in the KJV implies something different than the text actually teaches. The silence in 1 Timothy 2:11-12 is to be carried out "with all subjection." Subjection comes from a Greek compound meaning "under appointment" (Strong's 5293). It is by the appointment of God that women are to learn in silence in the assembly, neither are they at liberty to exercise authority over men in the assembly.

To the Corinthians, Paul wrote, "Let your women keep silent in the churches, for they are not permitted to speak; but they are to be submissive, as the law also says" (1 Corinthians 14:34). Though this is a different word for silence than is found in 1 Timothy 2:11, they are nonetheless the same though their relationship to Divine appointment. In 1 Corinthians, a woman's silence is said to be with submissiveness in connection with the Divine instruction of the Law, but which law? There is no specific Mosaic injunction for women to keep silence. In 1 Timothy 2:11, her silence is connection with the Divine order of creation and the fall of man (vv 13-14). Thus, one should understand the silence commanded in the law is a reference back to Genesis 2-3, and 3:16 in particular.

A quick look at silence in 1 Corinthians 14:28, 30, and 34. The demand for silence in 1 Corinthians 14:34 is not absolute. It must be understood contextually. The Greek word translated silence in verse 34 appears three times in the chapter (vv 28, 30, and 34), and nowhere indicates absolute silence. Rather, the word must be understood in its immediate context.

In verse 28, one who is speaking in a different language is to keep silence if there is no interpreter. The silence regulates his public speaking in a tongue, but not from speaking in a tongue understood by all present. In verse 30, if one prophet is speaking and another sitting nearby receives a word of prophecy, the first is to keep silence (hold his peace) while the second speaks. And in verse 34, the woman is to keep silence in such a way so as not to go beyond her authority. This is consistent with Paul's inspired restriction placed upon women exercising authority over men in 1 Timothy 2:8-15 (cf vv 11-12). 


[SOURCE]
Author: Brandi With An I
•8:00 AM
Is it possible to identify the church found in the New Testament?

Topic(s): Bible Authority, Church
Todd Clippard

With so many forms of "Christianity" today, one may ask, "How can I know I've found the church of the New Testament?" With recent estimates showing over 2000 individual religious groups all claiming to be a form of Christianity, this is a valid question, and we can see why one would be confused. However, we can say with absolute certainty that it is possible to find the church revealed in the New Testament. As an illustration to show our certainty, consider the following:

On August 15, 2007, I will have been married to my beautiful wife for 20 years. Let's suppose I decide to take her on a cruise to celebrate our anniversary. Shortly after boarding a ship filled with more than 2000 passengers, we become separated. My wife is a petite brunette. Suppose every other woman on the ship is a petite brunette; am I to despair that I should never find her among so many others? Why, such thinking is ridiculous! Even though there may be many on board who are similar, we all understand that I can easily find her because she is unique among all the others. She has specific characteristics that will allow me to easily distinguish between her and all the others.

The same can be said for the Lord's church. In Matthew 16:18, Jesus promised "I will build My church."
Note the singularity of the church. Jesus did not promise to build His "churches," but rather His "church" (singular).

In Ephesians 5:22-32, Paul teaches us how a husband is to love his wife and how a wife is to love her husband. All through this text, Paul parallels the husband and wife relationship with that of Jesus and His church. As a husband is to have only one wife, and a wife only one husband, Jesus only has one church. In fact, throughout this particular text, there are twelve references to the church, all of which are singular< in nature:
In verse 23 we find "the church" and "the body;"
In verse 24 we find "the church;"
In verse 25 we find "the church" and "it" (a singular pronoun in reference to the church).
In verse 26 we again see "it" referring to the church;
In verse 27 we find "the church" and "it" (twice);
In verse 29 we find "the church;"
In verse 30 we find "His body"In verse 32 we find "the church."

If it is possible for me to identify my wife among thousands of other women, though they share some of her characteristics, then it is equally possible for me to find the church Jesus built though there be thousands sharing some of its characteristics.


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Author: Brandi With An I
•8:00 AM
When did the church begin?

Bob Prichard
Topic(s): Church

As Jesus was with His disciples at Caesarea Philippi, on the coast of the Sea of Galilee, He asked, Whom do men say that I the Son of man am? (Matthew 16:13). Although some had suggested John the Baptist, or one of the prophets, Peter correctly answered, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God (Matthew 16:16). Because of Peter's confession of faith, Jesus said, thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. And I will give unto thee the keys of the kingdom of heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt bind on earth shall be bound in heaven: and whatsoever thou shalt loose on earth shall be loosed in heaven (Matthew 16:18-19). Christ said I will build my church, indicating that the church was then still in the future. John the Baptist was already dead, so he could not have established the church.

The prophets had long predicted the coming of Christ, and the establishment of His church. Isaiah prophesied, it shall come to pass in the last days, that the mountain of the Lord's house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it. And many people shall go and say, Come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem (Isaiah 2:2-3). From Isaiah's prophecy it is clear that the church would be established in Jerusalem (also called Zion); that all nations shall flow unto it, and that it would occur in the last days.

Events of Pentecost (Acts 2) fulfilled Isaiah's prophecies. Peter affirmed that the events of that day fulfilled prophecy it shall come to pass in the last days (Acts 2:17); and Luke says there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven (Acts 2:5). It was in the last days (church age), devout Jews and proselytes from many nations were gathered for Pentecost, and it was in the city of Jerusalem.

As the resurrected Christ prepared His disciples for the establishment of the church, He said, Thus it is written, and thus it behoved Christ to suffer, and to rise from the dead the third day: And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations, beginning at Jerusalem. And ye are witnesses of these things. And, behold, I send the promise of my Father upon you: but tarry ye in the city of Jerusalem, until ye be endued with power from on high (Luke 24:46-49). Before He ascended, Christ also told them, Ye shall receive power, after that the Holy Ghost is come upon you: and ye shall be witnesses unto me both in Jerusalem, and in all Judaea, and in Samaria, and unto the uttermost part of the earth (Acts 1:8). As the apostles preached on that day of Pentecost, multitudes obeyed the gospel of Christ, and became members of the Lord's church. Three thousand baptized that day continued stedfastly in the apostles' doctrine and fellowship, and in breaking of bread, and in prayers (Acts 2:42), and the Lord added to the church daily such as should be saved (Acts 2:47).


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Author: Brandi With An I
•12:16 PM
Does it matter how we worship?
Topic(s): Bible Authority, Church, Worship

Todd Clippard


Regarding worship, faithful members of the church have "driven a stake" at John 4:24, "God is a spirit, and they that worship Him must worship in spirit and in truth." There are three emphases in this text that must be considered. The first is the word "must," which is translated from the Greek dei, meaning "it is necessary." Therefore, we see our expressions of worship are bound to some pattern or form. That to which our worship is bound is seen in the latter part of the verse, "in spirit and in truth." But what does this mean?

The phrase "in spirit" comes from the Greek pneuma. It appears nearly 400 times in the NT and is employed in a variety of ways. In this context it refers to our hearts or inward being, that which comes forth from the inside (cf Matt 26:41, Mark 8:11, Luke 1:47, John 13:21, etc). Thus, our worship must be done with the proper frame of mind and attitude of heart.

The phrase "in truth" comes from a Greek word that appears 110 times in the NT and is translated "truth" 107 times. It refers to that which is objectively right. But what is the "truth" by which man must worship? Psalms 119:160 says "the sum of Thy word is truth." Also, in praying for his disciples, Jesus said, "Sanctify them by Thy truth, Thy word is truth" (John 17:17). Therefore, as "in spirit" regulates the inner man in worship, "in truth" regulates the outward man, that is, how< he worships.

We would do well to remember that God has always regulated the expressions of man's worship. God respected Abel and his offering (worship), but rejected Cain and his offering (worship). Why? Hebrews 11:4 explains, "By faith Abel offered a more excellent sacrifice than Cain, by which he obtained witness that he was righteous, God testifying of his gifts, and by it he being dead yet speaketh." Romans 10:17 says "faith comes by hearing the word of God." Therefore, Abel's worship was accepted by God because it was done according to the word of God. God will not accept "any ol' thing" as worship, even if done with the best of intentions (Lev 10:1-3).
God seeks true worshipers to worship Him (John 4:23-24). True worship is directed only toward God, and is not done to please men. In true worship, God alone is the audience and worshipers are the participants. What appeals to men is of no consequence. Whatever one believes to be a personal gift or talent is irrelevant. Worship is not a stage for men to parade their talents or receive the accolades of men. By its very definition, worship is not designed to appeal to the "seekers" (a.k.a. the "unchurched"), but rather to honor, venerate, pay homage to, and bring glory to God alone.



[SOURCE]
Author: Brandi With An I
•8:00 AM
Must one be a member of the church of Christ to be saved?
Topic(s): Church, Salvation
Todd Clippard

(Note - The entirety of the inquisitor's comments appear below:)

I am also curious about a rumor I heard, that the Church of Christ believes you can't be saved without being a member of your church. If this is so, I must note that Jesus said He does "not dwell in temples made with hands" and the verses you laid out make it abundantly obvious that HE is the only way.

I do not have a church. The Lord has a church. In Matthew 16:16-19, He said He would build His church. Acts 20:28 teaches He purchased the church with His blood. The Bible only speaks of one church. The term "church of Christ" is not an identity of ourselves as simply one denomination among the thousands now in existence. Rather, it identifies Christ's church, that is to say, the church that belongs to Christ. The one He came to build and for which He gave His life.

Acts 2:47 says the Lord adds the saved to the church. Ephesians 1:22-23 and Colossians 1:18 teach there is one head (Christ) and one body (church).

Ephesians 5:23-33 utilizes 12 nouns and pronouns referring to the church, all of them singular.

Also, in this and other passages, the church is likened to the bride or the wife of Christ (e.g., Rom 7:1-4). Therefore, to teach there is more than one church is to make Jesus a polygamist.

Please consider a few simple questions:

Can a man be saved without being reconciled to God (2 Cor 5:18-20; Eph 2:16)?

According to these verses, where is the place of reconciliation?

Is the body of Christ the church (Eph 1:22-23; Col 1:18)?

How many bodies does Jesus have (Eph 4:4)?

According to Ephesians 5:23, of what is Jesus the Savior?

Now, must one be a member of the church of Christ in order to be saved?

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